Hello,
I will try to explain this as simple as possible:
I have two sites, Site1 (home) and Site2 (company). Both have Sophos UTM and they connect via Site-2-Site tunnel.
Site1 has only one WAN connection, Site2 two has two WAN connections, let's call them WAN1 and WAN2.
Site-2-Site tunnel is built between Site1 WAN and Site2 WAN2.
So, now it get's tricky:
At Site2, since we have two WAN connections, we run some services via WAN1 and some over WAN2.
From home, I connect to a specific address that's usually running off on WAN2 at Site2 (work) - better said, the multipath is set to WAN2 by default, if there are no other multipath rules. But if I create a multipath rule telling it to connect via WAN1, then at work, it's still possible to connect to that address, but at home (via Site-2-Site tunnel) not. If I turn off the Multipath rule, I can connect to that address from home.
And to make things even more complicated, there is a NAT rule and additional address on the Site2 (work) Sophos, which translates the IP of the device attempting to connect to the address from my home address to the address of the company network.
Can you follow up? It seems like I'm missing some kind of path? Any ideas?
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