This discussion has been locked.
You can no longer post new replies to this discussion. If you have a question you can start a new discussion

Sending Remote access traffic through Site-to-site VPN, with 1:1 nat translation

Hi,

 

I have searched for an answer to this, but am unable to find a result which includes a 1:1 NAT.

Here is the scenario: 

Remote User -(SSL Remote Access VPN)-> Sophos UTM 9 -(IPSEC Site-to-site VPN)-> Partner servers

We have a requirement for remote users to access partners servers. Our Remote Access VPN is on the default SSL VPN subnet (10.242.2.0/24), but our partner has the requirement that traffic is sent from the 10.156.1.0/24 subnet.

The site-to-site VPN is established and working, showing up at both ends. Local network on my end is set to be 10.156.1.0/24.
I have created a 1:1 NAT rule to change traffic from remote users, going to partner network, to map the source as 10.156.1.0/24. 
Automatic firewall rules have been set up for both the S2S VPN, and NAT rule.
I have added the Partner network to the local networks section in the Remote Access VPN setup. 

 

Here is my NAT Rule:

Rule Type: 1:1 NAT (whole networks)
Matching Condition
For Traffic from: VPN Pool (SSL)
Using service: Any
Going to: [Partner Network]
Action
1:1 NAT mode: Map source
Map to: [PartnerRequiredSource] - 10.156.1.0/24
Automatic Firewall Rule - Yes

My questions are:

1. First of all, is this possible? I see no reason as to why it would not be. 
2. Is the 1:1 NAT rule set up correctly?
3. Do I need a 1:1 Map Source NAT rule for traffic coming back? I have created this, but no success with this on or off. 

Thanks for reading, hope it all makes sense. 



This thread was automatically locked due to age.
Parents
  • Hi,

    Just a quick follow up...

    I presumed it was not working on my side as I set up two connections (this one and one without the 1:1 NAT Rule), and neither were working. It turns out configuration issues on the other ends of both tunnels were causing the connections not to work. 

     So to answer my questions:

    1. Yes, it is possible
    2. The NAT Rule is set up correctly
    3. No, a 1:1 Map Source NAT rule is not needed for the connections to work

    Thanks

Reply
  • Hi,

    Just a quick follow up...

    I presumed it was not working on my side as I set up two connections (this one and one without the 1:1 NAT Rule), and neither were working. It turns out configuration issues on the other ends of both tunnels were causing the connections not to work. 

     So to answer my questions:

    1. Yes, it is possible
    2. The NAT Rule is set up correctly
    3. No, a 1:1 Map Source NAT rule is not needed for the connections to work

    Thanks

Children
No Data